From: | William Swadling <william.swadling@law.ox.ac.uk> |
To: | Simon Douglas <simon.douglas@law.ox.ac.uk> |
Matthew P. Harrington <matthew.p.harrington@umontreal.ca> | |
obligations@uwo.ca | |
Date: | 25/06/2021 08:01:33 |
Subject: | RE: Adverse Possession of Shareholder Rights |
Dear Matthew,
I entirely agree with Simon. The confusion may come from the fact that people sometimes speak of ‘title’ to shares, thus importing the whole law of adverse possession in relation to tangibles. However, this makes no sense at all. The
word ‘title’ (from ‘entitlement’) is necessary where you have physical things. It is needed to express the relationship between persons and physical things. And because such titles can be acquired by the taking of possession of physical things, there
may be more than one title-holder and so a need for a law of relativity of title.
None of this makes sense with intangibles, which, by definition, have no physical presence in the world. Unlike land and tables and chairs, the shares
themselves give entitlements, viz, an entitlement to vote, an entitlement to receive dividends if a dividend is declared, and an entitlement to receive rights in the winding up of the company. Thus, speaking of a ‘title’ to shares is the same as saying
an entitlement to an entitlement to dividends, to vote, to share in the winding-up, an obvious nonsense.
I’d be interested to read the cases on ‘adverse possession’ of copyright. Can you let me know what they are?
Best wishes,
Bill
From: Simon Douglas <simon.douglas@law.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 24 June 2021 16:20
To: Matthew P. Harrington <matthew.p.harrington@umontreal.ca>; obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: Re: Adverse Possession of Shareholder Rights
Hi Matt,
I have always understood AP to be a combination of two distinct rules:
I’m not sure how this could be translated to shares. In your example you would have to say that the person who mistakenly believed that they had the A shares had acquired a ‘relative title’ to them when they took possession of the shares.
Can you have relative titles to shares? I’m not aware of any case that says you can, but I may be wrong.
Best
Simon
From: "Matthew P. Harrington" <matthew.p.harrington@umontreal.ca>
Date: Thursday, 24 June 2021 at 15:57
To: "obligations@uwo.ca" <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Adverse Possession of Shareholder Rights
Dear Colleagues:
I hope you don’t mind this request for a bit of research help.
I`m in the midst of a piece on adverse possession, and one area that I`m beginning to explore is the question of whether one can have adverse possession of intangibles --- specifically the right to vote as a shareholder.
I`ve stumbled across a situation where a shareholder turned in shares of stock to the company in accordance with a reorganisation. She was to get “A” shares, which has a right to vote. Instead, the company issued her a certificate that
said she had “B” shares, which were non-voting. Another party had been given a certificate showing more A shares than he was entitled. There was some confusion as to how shares were to be allocated.
So, for more than 20 years, she showed up at shareholder meetings and did not vote. She was repeatedly told she was a “B Shareholder”. She accepted that. As a result, someone else essentially voted her shares.
I know there is some controversy over whether copyright can be subject to adverse possession, but my question is whether a shareholder’s voting rights can be as well. I take the position that
Oh, and by the way, the guy voting her shares was the president of the company.
Any ideas or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Best
Matt Harrington